Training Material for Cisco, CompTIA, SUN and Oracle Exams

2009-Apr-10 - HP0-918 2.77

“HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows”, also known as HP0-918 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 130 Q&As to your HP0-918 Exam preparation. In the HP0-918 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

 

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Question: 1
How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?

A. Use the omnidlc command.
B. Use the devbra collector.
C. Use the omnitrig process.
D. Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Answer: A

 

Question: 2
Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?

A. omnicheck
B. omnihealth
C. omnidbcheck
D. omnihealthcheck
Answer: D

 

Question: 3
Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?

A. Media Agent and Disk Agent
B. Media Agent and Media Agent
C. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Answer: B

 

Question: 4
You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?

A. Configure host access to the LUN.
B. Install the required device driver for the library.
C. Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D. Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Answer: D

 

Question: 5
What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?

A. RMI over LAN
B. remote agents
C. stream sockets
D. pipe mechanisms
Answer: C

 

Question: 6
What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)

A. device
B. filenames
C. hostname
D. mountpoint
E. description
F. rawdisk sections
Answer: C, D, E

 

Question: 7
What is a media pool?

A. a collection of media of the same age
B. a logical collection of media that belong together
C. a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D. a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Answer: B

 

Question: 8
How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?

A. logical lock
B. device lock
C. lock names
D. physical lock
 
Answer: C

 

Question: 9
What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?

A. 50GB
B. 100GB
C. 200GB
D. 600GB
Answer: A

 

Question: 10
Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?

A. redundant paths
B. multipath devices
C. device locking mechanism
D. multiple device connections
Answer: B

 

* certpaper hp HP0-918 Questions and Answers : 130 Q&As
* Updated: October 30th , 2008.

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2009-Apr-8 - HP0-S16 2.83

“Implementing HP BladeSystem”, also known as HP0-S16 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 63 Q&As to your HP0-S16 Exam preparation. In the HP0-S16 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

 

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Question: 9
When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?

A. Create a password for root in SMH.
B. Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C. Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D. Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Answer: D

 

Question: 10
What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade p-
class architecture?

A. Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B. Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232
connection method.
C. Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D. Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.

Answer: D


Question: 11
Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?

A. HP standard design
B. Variation of an HP standard design
C. Flexible design using HP standard design
D. Custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules

Answer: A


Question: 12
Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking devices
such as routers, bridges and switches?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B. Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

 

Question: 13
Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on hardware
configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant Support
Pack?

A. HP Control Tower
B. HP System Management Homepage
C. HP Performance Management agents
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: B

 

* certpaper hp HP0-S16 Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
* Updated: October 29th , 2008.

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2009-Apr-6 - EMC e20-331 2.77

“Symmetrix Business Continuity Implementation Exam for 1.E.s”, also known as e20-331 exam, is a EMC certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 180 Q&As to your e20-331 Exam preparation. In the e20-331 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in EMC Certification helping to ready you for your successful EMC Certification.

 

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1. A UNIX server has 4 HBAs. Each HBA is zoned to a different FA port on a DMX1000. Each HBA has access
to the same 20 Symmetrix Devices. PowerPath has been installed and configured on the UNIX Server.
Applications A & B have each been assigned 10 devices. Performance is extremely important for Application A,
while availability is critical for both applications.

 

Which PowerPath configuration will meet the requirements?
A.Set the load balacing policy for all devices for both applications to Least I/O
B.Set the load balancing policy of all paths of Application B to Symmetrix Optimization
C.Set the mode for 2 of the paths of Application B to Standby and the other 2 to Active
D.Set the mode for all paths of Application B to Standby and all paths of Applicaton A to Active
Answer: C

 

2. Which two TimeFinder/Clone actions are initiated when issuing a symclone establish command?
A.Activate and Restore
B.Create and Activate
C.Create and Terminate
D.Re-create and Terminate
Answer: B

 

3. In order for an R2 device to act as a control device for Open Replicator hot push, what is the valid state for a
synchronous R1 and R2 pair?
A.Consistent
B.Failed Over
C.Synchronized
D.SyncInProgress
Answer: B

 

4. What is the recommended mode of data transfer at the initial SRDF synchronization?
A.Adaptive Copy
B.Asynchronous
C.Semi-Synchronous
D.Synchronous
Answer: A

 

5. Which EMC Replication Manager component has modular agents for communication with storage arrays?
A.Client
B.Console
C.IRD
D.Server
Answer: A

 

6. In which operating system will disk numbering be changed with a dynamic ‘createpair’ operation?
A.AIX
B.HP-UX
C.Linux
D.Windows
Answer: A

 

7. You have created an EMC Replication Manager job to replicate your SQL Server database. You now want to
delegate the day-to-day management of this job to another user with Database Administrator privileges within
Replication Manager. This other user complains that they are unable to access the job you created.
What must you do to enable your Database Administrator to access this job?
A.Grant the user access to the database on SQL Server.
B.Manually add the user account to the job.
C.Recreate the SQL Server job.
D.Upgrade the user’s privileges to Power DBA.
Answer: B

 

* certpaper emc e20-331 Questions and Answers : 180 Q&As
* Updated: October 29th , 2008.

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2009-Apr-2 - Citrix 1Y0-740 2.95

“Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam”, also known as 1Y0-740 exam, is a Citrix certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 106 Q&As to your 1Y0-740 Exam preparation. In the 1Y0-740 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Certification helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification.

 

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5. An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: “response timeout.”
Which two options could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message? (Choose
two.)
A. SNMP user
B. SNMP group
C. SNMP manager
D. SNMP community
Answer: CD

6. An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler system to resolve DNS queries using an external DNS server
with an IP address of 10.10.10.1.
Which command could the administrator use to configure this?
A. add nameserver DNS1 10.10.10.1
B. add lb vserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1
C. add server DNS1 10.10.10.1 -external
D. add nameserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1 -local
Answer: A

7. Scenario: An administrator is planning on deploying a NetScaler system into a network environment using
SNMP. The administrator plans on enabling the 11 SNMP traps relating to request and response rates.
Which two objects must the administrator configure in order for the SNMP traps to send alerts? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP destination
B. Source IP address
C. Threshold levels for the traps
D. Additional IP addresses on which the SNMP service can respond to SNMP queries
Answer: AC

8. What must an administrator configure the NetScaler log to record in order to know when someone has altered
the system configurations?
A. Access logs
B. Event messages
C. System counters
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

9. The auditing and security policy of a company requires that all transactions that can be logged must be logged.
Which option must an administrator configure a syslog server for to meet this requirement?
A. Device counters
B. System counters
C. HTTP transactions
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

# certpaper citrix 1Y0-740 Questions and Answers : 106 Q&As
# Updated: October 30th , 2008.

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2009-Mar-30 - 642-652

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam.

 

Implement WAAS components of an ANS solution
Determine appropriate IOS version and upgrade if necessary to meet requirements
Configure & verify networking
Configure & verify router and switch configurations
Configure & verify WAE network configurations
Configure the device modes
Configure & verify central management
Configure & verify reporting & monitoring
Configure & verify AAA and RBAC
Configure & verify device and baseline groups
Configure & verify optimization policies
Configure & verify file services acceleration
Configure & verify print services
Configure and verify load balancing of WAE services
Validate that the deployment meets customer design objectives

 

Troubleshoot a WAAS solution
Troubleshoot poor performance in a WAAS solution
Troubleshoot connectivity in a WAAS solution
Troubleshoot management in a WAAS solution
Troubleshoot high availability in a WAAS solution
Troubleshoot scalability in a WAAS solution

 

certpaper > Cisco > WAASSE > Exam 642-652 Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers : 642-652 ExamQuestions and Answers : 60 Q&As Updated: October 29th , 2008 Price: $119.99 $99.99 Product DescriptionExam Number/Code: 642-652


Exam Name: Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers

 

“Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers”, also known as 642-652 exam, is a Cisco certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 60 Q&As to your 642-652 Exam preparation. In the 642-652 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in WAASSE helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

 

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2009-Mar-27 - Adobe 9a0-035

“Adobe Illustrator CS ACE Exam”, also known as 9A0-035 exam, is a Adobe certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 134 Q&As to your 9A0-035 Exam preparation. In the 9A0-035 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Photoshop helping to ready you for your successful Adobe Certification.

 

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1. Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the
ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers
Answer: D

 

2. What should you do if you are creating graphics that will be used only on the Web?
A. work in RGB color mode
B. work in CMYK color mode
C. compress continuous-tone images with a broad range of subtle variations in brightness and hue with the GIF
file format
D. use the JPEG file format to maintain high quality, vector images that will be used for creating animation frames
on the Web
Answer: A

 

3. You have created artwork for the Web using your two company colors. Which format and settings from the
Save for Web dialog box should you choose for optimization?
A. JPEG
B. PNG - 8
C. GIF; Web
D. GIF; selective
Answer: D

 

4. You have created a document that contains your company logo using spot colors and an imported photograph of
your business location. This document will be used on your website home page so flexibility in choosing image
compression is a prerequisite. Which file format should you choose?
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. SVG
D. JPEG
Answer: D

 

5. You are creating an SWF animation and want to reduce the size of your file. What should you do?
A. use Symbols
B. use Variables
C. choose Object > Blend > Expand
D. choose Object > Blend > Release
Answer: A

 

6. You want to place a high quality resolution independent graphic on your Web page. Which format would you
choose?
A. SVG
B. EPS
C. PNG
D. JPEG
Answer: A

 

# certpaper Adobe 9a0-035 Questions and Answers : 134 Q&As
# Updated: October 30th , 2008.

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2009-Mar-24 - 220-301 CompTIA Exam

Exam Number/Code: 220-301
Exam Name: A+ CORE HARDWARE(2003 Objectives)
VUE Code: 220-301
Exam Language(s): English

 

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2009-Mar-19 - 642-504

Exam Number/Code: 642-504
Exam Name:Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches
VUE Code: 642-504
Exam Language(s): English

 

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2009-Mar-16 - 350-040

Exam Number/Code: 350-040
Exam Name:CCIE Storage Networking
VUE Code: 350-040
Exam Language(s): English

 

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2009-Feb-26 - Actual Exam Questions for CISCO 640-553

IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security : 640-553 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 640-553
Exam Name: IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security

“IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security”, also known as 640-553 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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Questions and Answers : 65 Q&As
Updated: 2008-07-31
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2009-Feb-26 - Real Exam Questions for CISCO 640-640

IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC) : 640-460 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 640-460
Exam Name: IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)

“IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)”, also known as 640-460 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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2009-Feb-26 - Real Exam Questions for CCIE : 350-040

CCIE Storage Networking : 350-040 Exam
Exam Number/Code: 350-040
Exam Name: CCIE Storage Networking
VUE Code: 350-040

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1.What is TCP fast recovery?

A: It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.

B: It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C: It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D: It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
Correct Answers: C

2.What statement is TRUE?

A: A SPAN session can capture traffic originating from or destined for an end device, while an MDS fcanalyzer can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
B: An MDS fcanalyzer can capture traffic originating from, or destined for, an end device, while a SPAN can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor.
C: SPAN cannot capture traffic destined for the supervisor; the MDS fcanalyzer must be used instead.

D: SPAN can be used to determine why a port cannot autonegotiate to 2Gbps instead of 1Gbps.

E: Only when an SD port detects that it is attached to a Cisco PAA (Port Analyzer Adapter) will it use Buffer to Buffer Flow

Control.

Correct Answers: A

3.A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the “show vsan 1009″ command?
A: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E: vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Correct Answers: D

4.AAA(TACACS+, Radius) protocols can not be used to authenticate and/or authorize what on MDS? A: Telnet and Console access
B: SSH C: RBAC
D: dhchap for fabric security

E: CUP

Correct Answers: E

5.A customer needs SAN extension for a distance of 200 kilometers for a mission-critical application. Assuming the

customer owns the dark fibers between the 2 locations, what technology can provide the best reliability, performance, and scalability?

A: Single mode dark fiber with long wave GBIC/SFP

B: FCIP over dedicated leased line

C: DWDM with BLSR (bidirectional line switched ring) D: CWDM with failover protection by application Correct Answers: C

6.”SCSI LUN discovery” is triggered automatically when: A:An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
B:A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch

C:An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch

D:A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch

E:The switch has dual supervisors

Correct Answers: A, B, C

7.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this

VSAN?

A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.

B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN. C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN. E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN. Correct Answers: B

8.ip access-list acl1 permit ip any any ip access-list acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1 ip access-list acl1 permit icmp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list acl1 deny udp any any interface mgmt0 ip access-group acl1 ip address
10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 Given the above IP access list configured on MDS, Which are true? A:MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
B:Host 10.0.1.1 can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1

C:Host 10.0.1.1 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0

D:MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP E:MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1
Correct Answers: B, E

9.What is a valid file type and name created when using the Performance Manger wizard to create a collections file for a switch named MDS2 ?
A: MDS2_PM.xls

B: MDS2_PM.doc

C: C9216-2_06242004.xls

D: MDS2_PM.html

E: MDS2.xml

Correct Answers: E

10.When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this

VSAN?

A: The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.

B: In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.

C: QoS is enabled for the VSAN.

D: Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN. E: Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN. Correct Answers: B

“CCIE Storage Networking”, also known as 350-040 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 350-040 exam? Searching 350-040 Test Questions, 350-040 Practice Exam, 350-040 Dumps?
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